UPSC Prelims CSAT 2021 Question Paper with Solutions

Direction for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the question that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

India faces a challenges immediate future and climate policy making. The prelims are multiple surrounding fossil fuel production capabilities, limited access to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the poorest. Rising fuel import in an unstable global energy context; Continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply and not least, growing environmental contestation around land. Water and air. But all is not black growing energy efficiency programmes. Integrated urbanization and transport policy discussion; inroads to energy access and security; and bold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fifty conceptualized, suggest the promise of transformation.

Q1. Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

(a) India’s energy decision making process is ever more complex and interconnected.

(b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals

(c) India’s energy and climate actions are not compatible with the broader social economic and environmental goals.

(d) India’s energy decision making process is sight forward supply oriented and ignores the demand side


Passage – 2

There are reports that some of the attributes sold in the market are let to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, Pathogen that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed alone humans. Mindful of that some forming companies have stopped using the drug to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic with promoters in the 1990s. the major dork exporter says it is producing more pigs and animals get fewer diseases.

(a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.

(b) Foods of animal origin should be replace with foods plant origin.

(c) Using antibiotics on animals should banned.

(d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.


Passage – 3

Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economics. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

Q3. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Oil producing countries are one of the reason for high food prices.

2. If there is food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Passage – 4

A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the lever of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon. That if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP

Q4. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.

2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q5. seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are place side by side, R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law report; the rest are Gazetteers, books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are

(a) Q and R

(b) Q and U

(c) Q and T

(d) T and U


Q6. Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence

3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28,43, 40 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 3

(d) 6


Q7. following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly.

7B 10A 3C
3C 9B 6A
10A 13C ?

 

(a) 9B

(b) 3A

(c) 3B

(d) 3C


Q8. you are given two identical sequences in two rows:

Sequence – I: 8 4 6 15 52.5 236.25
Sequence: II: 5 A B C D E

What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence – II ?

(a) 2.5

(b) 5

(c) 9.375

(d) 32.8125


Q9. A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km/hr in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25 km/hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr in the third hour and so on.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. They take 5 hours to meet.

2. They meet midway between A and B.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q10. a student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many number of papers did he scores less than 60% of the maximum marks?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5


Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light – a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than  induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-asphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.

Q11. which on of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.

(b) light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.

(c) white light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colours.

(d) proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but for animals to.


Passage – 2

Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinator are insects. Pollination is responsible for providing us with a wide variety of food, as well as many plant derived medicines. At least one-third of the world’s agricultural crops depend upon pollination, bees are the most dominant taxa when it comes to pollination and they are crucial to more than four hundred crops. Pollination is an essential service that is the result of intricate relationships between planst and animals, and the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. Effective pollination required resources, such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation.

Q12. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. sustainable production of India’s ceral food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals.
  2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects.
  3. pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation.
  4. diversity in insects induces diversity of plants.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only


Passage 3

A study conduct on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increase trends for maximum and minimum temperatures and decrease in the number of rainy days. These climate shift will have an impact of the hydrological cycles in the region, lead to more run off or less recharge affect the groundwater tables, further, there has been an increase in the frequency of draughts in the states. This has farmers driven to increase dependency to groundwater resources to secure their crops.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given ab

(a) Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-smart agricultural practices.

(b) Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land systems.

(c) Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.

(d) Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies.


Passage-4

Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environment pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combination of biochemical and cell-based assays to examine the gene expression profile during the differentiation of mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA, a compound known to cause heart diseases, diabetes, and development abnormalities in human. They were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers, such as endoderm and ectoderm, and the establishment of neutral progenitor cells.

Q14. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made :

1. BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo.

2. Biochemical and cell based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-include diseases.

3. Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3


Q15. If is divided by , then what is the remainder ?

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 7

(d) 9


Q16. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of digit P ?

(a) 1

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 9


Q17. From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on day of the year is 80+0.1m, where m=1,2,3,…., 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the price of diesel (in Rupees per litre) on day of 2021 is 69+0.15 for any n. On which date in the year 2021 are the prices of these wo fuels equal ?

(a) 21st May

(b) 20th May

(c) 19th May

(d) 18th May


Q18. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals, If P represents the population after n years, then which one of the following equations represents the model of the class for the population?

(a) P=12+50n

(B) P=50+12n

(c) P=5=

(d) P=50


Q19. In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the girls. IF 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign students are boys ?

(a) 45%

(b) 40%

(c) 30%

(d) 20%


Q20. A statement followed by conclusion-1 and conclusion-2 is given below. You have to take the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly and then decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statement known facts.

Statement : some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches.

Conclusion-1 : Certainly some radios are watches.

Conclusion-2 : Certainly some mobiles are watches.

Which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Only Conclusion-1

(b) Only Conclusion-2

(c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2

(d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2


Q21. Direction for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such things as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be judge of each other’s religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.

Q21. What is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage given above ?

(a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.

(b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination.

(c) Religious denomination tend to ignore the unity of man.

(d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination.


Passage-2

It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the  laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.

Q22. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above ?

(a) Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.

(b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.

(c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.

(d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.


Q25. In a group of 120 persons. 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners Further, 70 person in the group can speak English . the number of Indians who can speak English is.

(a) 20

(b) 30

(c) 30 or less

(d) 30 or more


Q26. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits, which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum.

Which of the following Ware correct?

1. S is always divisible by 74.

2. S is always divisible by 9.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 4

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q27. There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 90 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Your students are shifted from Classe-A to class-B

Consider the following statements

1. The average ere of Class -B will definitely decrease.

2. The average score of Class-A definitely increase.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q28. consider two Statements and a question:

Statement-1 : Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom.

Statement-2 : Ena is 2 ranks, above Seema and is 37th from the bottom.

Question: What is Seema’s rank from the top in the doss of 40 Students?

Which one or the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1. alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(c) Either Statement-1 alone or Statement-2 alone is sufficient to Answer the Question

(d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to Answer the Question


Q29. Consider two Statements and a Question:

Statement-1 : Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest.

Statement-2: A is heavier than D. but is lighter than C.

Question : Who is the heaviest among A, B, C. D and E?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question


Q30. In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order; and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter?

(a) N

(b) T

(c) H

(d) I


Direction for the following 4 (four) items

Read the following four passages and Answer the items that follow. You answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passages-1

Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other large trees are absent. In natural forests, fig trees provide food for wildlife when other resources are scarce and support a high density and diversity of frugivores (fruit-eating animals). If frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit fig trees located in sites with high human disturbance, sacred fig trees may promote frugivore abundance. Under favourable microclimate, plenty of seedlings of other tree species would grow around fig trees.

Q31. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumption have been made:

1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests.

2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow.

3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation.

4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only


Passage – 2

At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should ‘mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such agricultural mimics, like their natural models, can be productive, pest-resistant, nutrient conserving, and resilient to shocks and stresses. In ecosystems there is no ‘waste’, nutrients are recycled indefinitely. Agroecology aims at closing nutrient loops, i.e., returning all nutrients that come out of the soil back to the soil such as through application of farmyard manure. It also harnesses natural processes to control pests and build soil fertility i.e., through intercropping. Agroecological practices include integrating trees with livestock and crops.

Q32. Consider the following:

1. Cover crops

2. Fertigation

3. Hydroponics

4. Mixed farming

5. Polyculture

6. Vertical farming

Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with as implied by the passage?

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only

(d) 4 and 6 only


Passage – 3

Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card details and databases, but also with the real world of physical objects and vulnerable human bodies. A modern car is a computer on wheels; an aeroplane is a computer on wings. The arrival of the “Internet of Things” will see computers baked into everything from – road signs and MITI scanners to prosthetics and insulin pumps. There is little evidence that these gadgets will be any more trustworthy than their desktop counterparts. Hackers have already proved that they can take remote control of internet connected cars and pacemakers.

Q33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Computers are not completely safe.

(b) Companies producing the software do not take cyber security seriously.

(c) Stringent data security laws are needed.

(d) The present trend of communication technologies will affect our lives in future.


Passage – 4

A serial and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and Insanitary conditions generate the risk, of infectious diseases. Hygiene has different levels personal, domestic and community hygiene. There is no doubt that personal cleanliness brings down the rate of infectious diseases. But the entry of the market into this domain has created a false, sense of security-targets conditioned and reinforced by the onslaught of advertisements. Experience in Western Europe shows that along with personal hygiene, general improvements in environmental conditions and components like clean water, sanitation and food security have brought down infant/child death/infection considerably. The obsession with ‘hand hygiene also Filings ‘in the persisting influence of the market on personal health, overriding or marginalising-negative impact on ecology and the emergence of resistant germs.

Q34. On the basis of passage given above, the following assumption have been made:

1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene.

2. Emergence of multi-drug resistant germs can be prevented by personal cleanliness.

3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases.

4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases.

5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases. Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only


  1. A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement: Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables.

Conclusion-I: Certainly, some almirah are tables.

Conclusion-II: Some cats may not be chairs.

Which one of the following is correct

(a) Only Conclusion-I

(b) Only Conclusion-II

(c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II

(d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

  1. A boy plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of F5 m. Every time the ball hits the ground. it bounces back to attain a height 415th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. What is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stops bouncing?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

  1. Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?

(a) 13

(b) 14

(c) 15

(d) 16

  1. A bank employee drives 10 km towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20 km. She again turns left and drives 40 km, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30 km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house?

(a) 20 km

(b) 25 km

(c) 30 km

(d) 35 km

  1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

  1. A woman runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her South and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?

(a) An angle less than 45° South of East

(b) An angle less than 45° North of East

(c) An angle more than 45° South of East

(d) An angle more than 45° North of East

Direction for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

 

Passage-1

Nothing can exist in a natural state which can be called good or bad by common assent, since every man who is in a natural state consults only his own advantage, and determines what is good or bad according to his own fancy and insofar as he has regard for his own advantage alone, and holds himself responsible to nu one save himself by any law; and therefore sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only in  a civil state which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state.

  1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

The conceptions of what is right. or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.

Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no men would he morally right.

Man to inherently immoral and selfish in a natural state.

The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species

 

Passage – 2

There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, the major pork exporter says it is producing more pigs- and the animals get fewer diseases.

  1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?
  2. People should avoid cousuming the products of animals farming.
  3. Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.
  4. Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.
  5. Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.

Passage – 3

Policy makers and media have the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of  factors, including high fuel prices. bad weather in key fond producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food Production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

  1. With reference to the above passage, the

following assumptions have been made :

  1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
  2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Passage — 4

A central message of development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level Of GDP was once low, households, communities; and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a7—–significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP.

  1. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
  2. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.
  3. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

  • I only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

  1. Consider the following Table
Player Runs scored in the First Innings Balls faced in the First Innings Runs scored in Innings Balls faced in the Second Innings
A 61 99 14 76
B 05 12 50 85
C 15 75 20 50
D 13 55 12 50

 

Whe is the fastest run scorer in the Match ?
(a)

(b)

(c) C

(d) D

  1. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 years of age. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct ?
    (a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.
    (b) Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.
    (c) Only half of the villagers who cultivate) paddy are Literate.
    (d) No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.
  2. Consider two Statements and a Question :
    Statement 1 : The last day of the month is a Wednesday.
    Statement-2: The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day.
    Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given month ?
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?
    (a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
    (b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
    (c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question.
    (d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
  3. Which day to 10th October, 2027

(a) Sunday
(b) Monday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Saturday
59. Consider two Statements and four Conclusions given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.
Statement.  Some greens are blues.
Statement.2: Some blues are blacks.

Conclusion-
Conclusion.2: No green is blacks.
Coneluston.3: All greens are blacks.
Conclusion -4: All blacks are greens

Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Conelusion-1 and Conclusion-2 only
(b) Conclusion-2 and Coneluwien-3 only
(e) Conclusion- 3 and Conclusion-4 only
(d) Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4 .

Q60. What is the value of ‘X’ in the sequence 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822 ?

(a) 603
(b) 605
(e) 607
(d) 608

Directions for the following 3 (three) items :
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items shou be based on the passages only,

Passage – 1
Medieval merchants risked the hazards of the Silk Road to reach the markets of China; Portuguese caravels in the  century sailed beyond the bounds of the known world, searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. Historically, the driver for opening frontiers has Always been the search for resources. Science and. curiosity are weaker drivers. The only way to open up space, whether the space of solar system or interstellar space is to create an economic engine and that engine is resource extraction.
61. Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage given above?
(a) Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavour.
(b) Space, whether space in solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.
(c) Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers, principally by economic considerations.
(d) Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behaviour of some men.

Passage – 2
“…… most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate.”

  1. The idea which the first part of the passage mentions is.
    (a) agreement about telling lies.
    (b) disagreement about telling lies.
    (c) disagreement about telling the truth.
    (d) disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.
  2. Which one of the following habits is found more often in good people?
    (a) Mixing up the true and false
    (b) Intentional mixing up of truth with the false
    (c) Falsification of facts
    (d) Complete concealment of truth

 


Q64. A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins correspond to ind water corresponds to . If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to p%, then what is the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram?
(a)54
(b)96
(c)108
(d)120


Q65. Joseph visits the club on every day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every   If all three of them met at the club on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again?
(a) Monday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday
(d) Sunday


Q66. The difference between a 2 -digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54.
Consider the following statements:

  1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is known.
  2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q67. X said to Y, “At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present.” If the present age of is 42 years, then consider the following statements:

  1. 8 years ago, the age of was five times the age of .
  2. After 14 years, the age of would be two times the age of .
    Which of the above statements is/are, correct?

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2,

Q68. If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25% , then what is the net change in the price?

(a) 0%
(b) 5% increase
(c) 5% decrease
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data


Q69. When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111…). What is the smallest such number?

(a) 15713
(b) 15723
(c) 15783
(d) 15873


Q70. A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it will take him to finish the job if quantum of work is further increased by 50% ?

(a) 24
(b) 21
(c) 18

(d)15


Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1
The best universities like Harvard and MIT, despite having the luxury of having some truly excellent teachers on their payroll, are increasingly embracing the “flipped classroom” format, where students listen to video lectures at home, and spend class time applying their knowledge, solving problems, discussing examples, etc. Professors guide that discussion and fill in wherever necessary, explaining those bits that seem to be eluding the students and throwing in advanced ideas that happen to be topical. These universities have made their video. lectures available free for anyone in the world. They are also encouraging colleges and universities all over the world to integrate these online courses into their own pedagogy, picking the pieces that are appropriate for their needs and building a package around them.

Q71. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

(a) Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared to conventional method.
(b) Availability of higher education can be. made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.
(c) We need not invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital.
(d) Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes, can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well.

Passage – 2

Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts. Our cities contribute to 65 per cent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to cater to the needs of the people. It is important to address the issues of air quality, transport, ete., that are vital to identifying sustainable solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that, meets the needs of the people.

Q72. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.
(b) Ever increasing population densities is at hindrance in our efforts to achieve sustainable development.
(c) To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.
(d) Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for the infrastructure and sustainability problems of India.


Q73. Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 pens and 5 pencils, and Vijay bought 2 pens and 7  pencils, then which one of the following is correct?

(a) A pencil costs more than a pen
(b) The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen]
(c) The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil
(d) The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil


Q74. P scored 40 marks more than in an examination. If scored  less works than P, then how much did  score?

(a) 360

(b) 380

(c) 400

(d) 420


Q75. A person P asks one of his three friends as to how much money he had. replied, “If  gives me , then  will have half of as much as , but if  gives me , then three of us will have equal amount.” What is the total amount of money that  and  have?

(a)   420
(b)  360
(c)   400
(d)   470


Q76. In a code language MATHEMATICS’ is written as ‘LBSIDNZUHDR’ How is ‘CHEMISTRY’ written in that code language?

(a) DIDLHRSSX
(b) BIDNHTSSX
(c) BIDLHTSSX
(d) DGFLIRUQZ


Q77. At which one of the following times, do the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock make an angle of with each other?

(a) At 7:00 hours
(b) Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours
(c) At 7:05 hours
(d) Between 7:00  hours and 7:10 hours


Q78. In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. What is the number of incorrect responses?

(a) 9

(b) 13

(c) 27

(d) 43


Q79. Consider the following addition problem:

3P + 4P  + PP + PP ; where P, Q  and R. are different digits.

What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums?
(a) 102 (7)Pf2(PD)=RQ×2
(b) 120
(c) 202
(d) 220


Q80. Consider the following multiplication problem:
where and  are different digits and .

What is the value of  ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data.