UPSC IAS Prelims Question Paper Set – D with Answer key, and approach to solve the paper.

Download PDF of Hindi medium question paper 

 

Questions from From 20-20 and 50-50 series

  • 40 Direct questions: Question numbers – 1, 3,7, 8, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 34, 35, 37, 38, 39, 42, 49, 51, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 60, 69, 71, 72, 76, 77, 78, 79, 90, 95, 96, 98, 100.
  • 3 Indirect Questions: Question numbers – 31, 43, 46,50.
  • Total Questions from 20-20 and 50-50 Series: 44

Questions solved from Guidance Series:

  • Total 24 questions: Question numbers – 4, 5, 6, 10, 23, 32, 41, 45, 48, 59, 64, 65, 66, 68, 80, 81, 83, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 92, 94.
  • These are common sense, logic or elimination based questions. There is no specific preparation for these questions ever. [I have written logic in solution.]

Total Questions you can solve directly = 40+24 = 64. Indirect = 4

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UPSC IAS Prelims Question Paper Set – D with Answer key and approach

 

 

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. [We don’t really have an idea about this. Lets check other options.]

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. [Wrong: It is China. It is criticized as Chinese Development Bank. I told in 20-20 and 50-50 to learn shareholding >…) for Only 4 MFIs. (see screenshots)] ==> Options ‘b’ and ‘d’ eliminated. now check point ‘3’.

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. [Wrong: It has members in all over the world. Easy fact, we are expected to remember.] ==> Eliminate option ‘c’ to arrive at the answer. 

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. AIIB is directly mentioned among 4 MFIs. An easy question.

 

2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending

Factual question, but not easy. Directly from current affairs. Part of every news paper, and coaching monthly compilations. 

 

3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series

(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(c) Union Ministry of Finance

(d) Management of concerned bank

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. Easy question as well. Continuously in news from last three years.

 

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. [Ha ha: What a joke, eliminate this option. Question solved.]

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. [Wrong: LTE is commonly marketed as Advanced 4G.]

2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. [VoLTE is not voice-only. [Reliance Jio ka free internet Volte par hi chalta hai.]

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Very easy question.

 

6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ‘ (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily. [Extreme word: Eliminate it to get the answer.]

3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy question, if you know how to solve the extreme words and general words questions.

 

7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’? Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series

(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(c) Registering property

(d) Dealing with construction permits

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series: Click on the lecture. At 22:24 Minutes, I am talking “कुछ इंडिसेस ऐसे हैं, जिनके आपको components रटने पड़ेंगे, जैसे Ease of Doing Business Report लगातार न्यूज़ में हैं …..”

Lecture Link Play at 22:24 Minutes

 

8. In India,’extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. Anyways, it is a very easy question if you have even once read these rules. These Rules are famous only for one thing: that is ‘extended producer responsibility’

 

9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

(a) transportation cost only [Extreme word: eliminate this option]

(b) interest cost only [Extreme word: eliminate this option]

(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost

(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Tough Question. Dice Game (Ludo) between ‘c’ and ‘d’.

 

10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? Direct Hit from my Geography Optional Notes 🙁 Optional bhi padhe!!!

(a) The proportion of literates in the population

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(c) The size of population in the working age group

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Geography Optional students are happy. Not easy for other students, very close and confusing options.

 

11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

(a) Integrated Rural Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission

Not a UPSC CSE question. It was a scheme launched by the RBI in 1989. Is it an exam of SSC or Banking? 

 

12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. [Wrong: Minor minerals are in state list.] ==> eliminate it, question solved.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(e) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy question from Lakshmikant: Minor minerals are in state list. 

 

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities. [Wrong: But it is a tough option. Most people will mark it as correct.]

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.  [Eliminate extreme word, and play Dice game (Ludo) between option ‘a’ or ‘d’]

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(e) Investments

(d). Money at call and short notice

Tough Question. Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. page number 2 of 8 pages notes.

 

15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector [Correct: everyone knows]

2. Increasing the government expenditure   [logic: to reduce the risk, reduce expenditure. Eliminate this option to arrive at the answer]

3. Remittances from Indians abroad [Correct: everyone knows]

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics [Monetary policy]. But it is an easy, logic based question too.

 

16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. Also, always in news.

 

17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a) Certificate of Deposit

(b) Commercial Paper

(c) Promissory Note

(d) Participatory Note

Very basic question. Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics (BoP). 

 

18. Consider the following statements

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. [Eliminate extreme word: no act will make people’s participation mandatory. Logic: इतने भी फालतू नहीं बैठे हैं लोग]

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50. Also an easy question , if you can eliminate extreme word.

 

19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5

Tough Question. You will get confused between option ‘a’ and ‘c’.

 

20. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.

2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.

3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Tough, Factual, SSC or state PSC type question. Level of UPSC dropped!

 

21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Very easy question from Lakshmikant.

 

22. Consider the following statements

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. [Correct: easy]

2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. [Answer: 3rd largest. Is it SSC or state PSC exam?] Play dice game (Ludo) between ‘a’ and ‘c’.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Tough question.

 

23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.

2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.

3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. [Extreme word, eliminate option 4 to get the answer]

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Easy question, do it by elimination. Else very tough question. Anyways, it is a question from all coachings’ prelims test series. 

 

24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a) Spices            [Wrong: India is an exporter]

(b) Fresh fruits   [Wrong: India imports only exotic fruits and fruits for upper middle and high class. So it can’t be highest imported.]

(c) Pulses

(d) Vegetable oils  

Not an easy question: There is confusion between c and d. Those who are appearing from 2017, they knows that pulses import increased from their attempt. So it is not a question for the first attempt people.

 

25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers [Liberty can’t be against only political rulers.]

(b) Absence of restraint                [Confusion in b and d, tough to solve. according to NCERT, ‘b’ is definition of democracy.]

(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes  [extreme word]

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Very Tough question: very confusing options.

 

26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports

(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds

(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy [Wrong: Expansionary policy –> increase in money supply –> inflation –> weakening of  rupee]

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. But it is also an easy question.

 

27. Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India [Correct: RBI works only for India.] ==> options ‘b’ and ‘c’ eliminated.

2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises [Extreme word: eliminate it]

3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year. [Wrong: Easy option from Lakshmikant , Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50 series.] 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. Read last column of the screenshot, CAG has no role for RBI.

28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(c) The European Union

(d) The United States of America

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. It is part of BTIA. 

 

29. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

(a) Japan

(b) Russia

(c) The United Kingdom

(d) The United States of America

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. It is nuclear deal with Russia. But a tough question.

 

30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

(d) Increase in the population of the country

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. page number 2 of 8 pages notes. Financial inclusion  = banking habit.

 

31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. [Answer: yes. Thats why they are PVTGs] => eliminate option ‘d’. This is the only option, which could be easily eliminated. Dice game between ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’.

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. [Answer: yes]

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Indirect Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. you can eliminate 2 options, because ‘2’ and ‘4’ are easy to answer. ‘4’ is also not easy to remember. But it is still tough to solve. There is doubt between ‘1’ and ‘3’.  

It is not a UPSC type of question. There are 75 PVTGs, and they asked 95. It is a state PSC or SSC type question. It is sad UPSC is doing such things.

32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Very easy to do by elimination, if you know article 142 is related to supreme court.

It should be a very easy question. Article 136 and 142 are very very very important. 

 

33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. [Extreme word: it can follow, but it is not necessary.]

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Not an easy question to approach.

 

34. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.

2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. I have mentioned corruption as important topic in international agreements. 

 

35. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas. [Wrong: Minor forest produces can be collected, not cut or fell down.] ==> option ‘a’ and ‘d’ eliminated, and point number ‘3’ is correct, because it is part of both options ‘b’ and ‘c’. ==> Check option 2 to get the answer.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. [Correct: the amendment to include Bamboo in minor forest produce is very much in news.]

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. 

the amendment to include Bamboo in minor forest produce is very much in news.

 

36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? Can there be easier question than this? ==> Search for article 21 in the options.

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 25

(d) Article 29

 

37. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. [Wrong: biological process can not be patented. Easy option to eliminate, mostly in news, and IPR controversies.]

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. [Extreme word]

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.  [Correct: Indian law is rejected by UPOV, see the screenshot]

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50. 

 

38. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. Easy question. Every bill or act talks about public participation, standards, punishment, regulatory body etc.

 

39. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50. Also easy to solve by logic. 

 

40. Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.

2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Tough question: Why UPSC is asking SSC or State PSC type of questions? 🙁

 

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.   [Virtual = simulated ] ==> ‘a’ and ‘c’ eliminated. Even point number ‘2’ is not required to check, as it is not part of options ‘b’ and ‘d’. 

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. [Opposite of Virtual = Real]

3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. [Augmented= improves ] ==> question solved. Answer is option’b’ 

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. [Virtual = immersion] Tough word-meaning, but question is already solved. 

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 4 only

Easy question , if you can solve it with patience. Just check the word-meaning.

 

42. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species  [Super Hit from 20-20]

(c) a cave system found in North-East India.

(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 (Palaeo Human. Don’t laugh at my drawing)

 

43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.

(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

An indirect topic from 20-20 and 50-50. It can be solved from Biotechnology PDF. After reading the DNA, RNA, Chromosomes, genes, Mitochondrial DNA, stem cell, ART etc., you know that option ‘b’, ‘c’, and ‘d’ are possible. Hence, ‘a’ is the right answer. 

I always tell in how to approach Science and Technology questions, whenever in doubt, tick all  of the above option. So ‘b’, ‘c’, and ‘d’ are correct options. Option ‘a’ is very much hypothetical.

 

44. Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Tough question, Language is not very clear. There will be confusion between option ‘c’ and ‘d’.

 

45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

I always tell in how to approach Science and Technology questions, whenever in doubt, tick all  of the above option.

Anyways, it is an easy question, if you are a frequent visitor of amazon or flipkart. 

 

46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.

3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1 and 4 only

An indirect topic from 20-20 and 50-50. It can be solved from Biotechnology PDF. After reading the DNA, RNA, Chromosomes, genes, Mitochondrial DNA, stem cell, ART etc., you can eliminate Hormone option. But tough to solve in exam conditions, if concepts are not very much clear. 

 

47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Both ‘b’ and ‘d’ are correct. 🙁 

Explanation: In the center of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a one-dimensional point which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small space, where density and gravity become infinite and space-time curves infinitely, and where the laws of physics as we know them cease to operate.

 

48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people [multi-drug resistance is not related to genetic, it is acquired due to antibiotics]

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people [Antibiotics Drug Resistance is transmitted from animals and people.]

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

(e) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

It is an easy question. Antibiotics Drug Resistance is very much in news. 

 

49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing 

(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50. 

 

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. [Correct: HIV is a disease from virus, most people knows it. But most people doesn’t know that Hapetitis B is a viral Disease. (part of Science and Technology lecture). But the answer is given in question itlelf, examiner herself told you….  Hepatitis B virus]. Now apply logic ==> viral diseases should transmitted in like manner. 

(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. [Wrong: Easy option to eliminate: HIV AIDS affected population is much lower than any major disease. Everyone knows it.]

(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. [Generalised word: it is a correct option. ]

Direct question from Science and Technology Notes. Hepatitis B, C and D are viral diseases.

Question solved by elimination. Easy question, if you know how to solve the extreme words and general words questions. But not an easy question in exam conditions, Hepatitis dekh ke aadhe logo ko viral fever ho jata hai (including me).

 

51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. J agirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(e) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50. In guidance series also, I have told to study only one liner and italic words in ancient and medieval History.

 

52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless. [In my opinion, this option is correct.]

(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

 

53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(c) World Economic Forum

(d) World Bank

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. 1 question hit from 2 pages notes.

 

54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. [Wrong: It was company]

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50. 

 

55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. Anyways, it is a very very easy question.

 

56. Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization

Leader

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. See point number 6 in screenshot below. I have told to learn only three things to learn from this topic: Social Reform Movement: Name of Person; Organisation; Published Book/ Ideology.

Anyways, it is a very easy question.

 

57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot Diji

(c) Sohgaura

(d) Desalpur

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics. I have updated maps from Mauryan times, and strictly recommended to learn OLD NCERT Harappa map.

 

58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli

(b) Sanchi I

(c) Shahbazgarhi

(d) Sohgaura

 

59. Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha

2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Most easy question from Buddhism from a long time. I explained it while explaining the concept of God in temple architecture. [issues in Hinduism –> Buddhism and Jainism –> Hinyana Buddhism was initial Buddhism –> Hindus endangered –> Hinduism revived and introduced concept of God (Mortu pooja, sculptures, Chaturbhuj Vishnu, Krishna) –> Buddhism endangered –> Buddhism introduced (Mortu pooja, sculptures etc. similar to Chaturbhuj Vishnu, Krishna]

 

60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50. In guidance series also, I have told to study only one liner and italic words in ancient and medieval History.

 

61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’? Tough question: Dice game (Ludo) between ‘a’ and ‘d’

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b)Tobacco, cotton and rubber. [Cotton: From Harappan culture. See NCERT, Mohanjodaro movie ] => option ‘b’ and ‘c’ are eliminated.

(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane [Coffee from Africa/ Ethiopian region]

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat [Wheat: Central Asia]

Tough question: Dice game (Ludo between ‘a’ and ‘d’

A question from Geography optional (Topic: Gene pool centre). 🙁 World history does not explains this point very clearly.

 

62. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

63. Consider the following pairs

Famous place

River

Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Very tough question. on map, Hampi and Malprabha river are not very far.

 

64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

(a) poverty rates vary from State to State

(b) price levels vary from State to State

(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State

(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

 

65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

(d) Reducing the global warming

easy and Logic based question. It was also part of one essay topic in mains 2018.

 

66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

(a) Extraction of rare earth elements

(b) Natural gas extraction technologies

(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Easy question

 

67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Although the Topic Biospherer Reserve is part of 20-20 and 50-50 series, it is a very tough question.

 

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. [General word: Some, not all]

2. Some species of fish are herbivores.    [General word: Some, not all]

3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.    [General word: Some, not all]

4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.    [General word: Some, not all]

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(e) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Easy question, if you know how to solve the extreme words and general words questions.

 

69. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife

Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series. Irrawaddy Dolphin is flagship species of Chilika Lake.

Very easy question, if you  are doing it by elimination. How can Irrawaddy Dolphin be found in Chambal River.

 

70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Very confusing options. Need to solve carefully, else there is no reasons of being ‘b’ and ‘d’ wrong.

 

71. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

(a) Chalukya

(b) Chandela

(c) Rashtrakuta

(d) Vijayanagara

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics

 

72. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.

2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct hit from 20-20 and 50-50. In guidance series also, I have told to study only one liner and italic words in ancient and medieval History.

 

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.

2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person

Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Tough question. Not perfect hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topics, but you can eliminate option ‘a’ and ‘b’ from 20-20 and 50-50 notes. Joshi was part of Socialist (or communist) movement.

 

76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar. [Wrong statement: means correct answer]

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.  [Correct, see 20-20 and 50-50 screenshot]

(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.        [Everyone knows]

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.      [Everyone knows]

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. 

 

77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a) Humayun

(b) Akbar

(c) Jahangir

(d) Shah Jahan

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. 

 

78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Indirect hit from 20-20 and 50-50 topic. Easy to solve if you know that Valley of Flowers is famous for Alpine meadows.

 

79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Series

 

80. On 21st June, the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

 

81. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Very easy question.

 

82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Underground cave systems

(d) Water reservoirs

Very Tough question.

 

83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. [Extreme word: COis product of incomplete burning and can never be eliminated.] => option ‘a’ and ‘d’ eliminated.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. [Generalised word- reduces, this option is correct. => You got the answer without attempting ‘3’ and ‘4’]   

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. [not easy to know this fact]

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.  [Wrong: Making Hydrogen is very costly. Easy to eliminate this option.]

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Easy question, if you know how to solve the extreme words and general words questions. You got the answer without attempting ‘3’ and ‘4’.

 

84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Easy question from Geography.

 

85. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.  [Wrong: President may require the Council of Ministers’ advice to reconsider once .]

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Easy option from Polity.

 

86. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.  [Wrong: it can be rejected. written in Lakshmikant]

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. [Wrong: it does not defines, mentioned many places in Lakshmikant]

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. [Correct]

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. [Correct]

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Easy question by elimination. Directly from Lakshmikant.

 

87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai

It is very easy question. Indirectly from Lakshmikant. Ninth Schedule was added by the The first amendment to the Indian Constitution, 1951. Everyone knows who was prime-minister that time. 

 

88. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.  [Ha Ha, what a joke. Eliminate this option, question is solved.]

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy question, logic based. 

 

89. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. [Wrong: it is nowhere defined in constitution. Directly from Lakshmikant]. Eliminate this option, question solved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Very easy question. Elimination based.

 

90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics

 

91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) biodiesel

(c) pulp for paper industry [This option is also not wrong]

(d) textile fibre

 

 

92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy Question: I always tell in how to approach Science and Technology questions, whenever in doubt, tick all  of the above option.

 

93. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-2-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

 

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy Question: I always tell in how to approach Science and Technology questions, whenever in doubt, tick all  of the above option.

 

95. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Methane

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Indirect Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. Doubt over Ozone can be resolved from here, and the question is solved.

 

96. Consider the following pairs:

Sea

Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea Albania
2. Black Sea Croatia
3. Gaspian Sea Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco
5. Red Sea Syria      [Easy to eliminate]

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Tough question, but Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics. I always recommended to give emphasis on West Asia and South East Asia, Countries bordering oceans etc.

 

97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Myanmar

(d) Vietnam

 

98. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier

River

1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri Chenab
3. Milam Mandakini
4. Siachen Nubra
5. Zemu Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3 and 5

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics

Bandarpunch- Yamuna ==> 1 is right. ==> options ‘c’ and ‘d’ are wrong. 

Mandakini: Kedarnath or Ghorabari ==> 3 is wrong. Question solved.

Nubra: Siachin ==> Option 4 is correct.

Option 5 is wrong: I have talked about only three glaciers in this lecture at 15:30 minutes. Jemu, Rathong and Lonak. Click here for Lecture Link Play at15:30 minutes.

 

99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(c) fruit-ripening agents

(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

 

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. [wrong: Not mandatory. It is convention, not act or protocol.]

2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Direct Hit from 20-20 and 50-50 Topics.

 

 

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